Anyway, I'm not sure I understood the question. If the question is about the original writings of the Bible, neither the ancient Hebrew nor the Greek included punctuation as we use it in modern writing and Bible translations. The languages of the Bible are the ordinary languages of the times when it was written, the vernacular Hebrew, Aramaic, and Greek of the participants and authors. Translators try to use punctuation consistenty with our language, so as to make their understanding of the meaning clear to the contemporary reader. Will the translatores always be right in their choice of words, phrases, or punctuation? Of course not, we read both the words and the punctuation of the translations with an understanding that these are an attempt on the part of scholars to convey the original meaning of the text, and careful study and comparison on the part of each reader is appropriate.